Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 06:12
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Will you share your wife? Can she take both of us at the same time?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
How do military families balance personal political views with respect for civilian leadership?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.